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CBSE Board Exams 2021: Sanyam Bhardwaj, the Controller of Examinations, Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) asserted that as of now the board has no plans to delay the board exam. 

Sanyam Bhardwaj, the Controller of Examinations, Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) asserted that as of now the board has no plans to delay the board exam 2021

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CBSE 10th Social Science Board Exam 2020: Important Questions & Answers of History – All Chapters CBSE 10th History (Social Science)

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 1 (The Rise of Nationalism in Europe)

Q1-What steps French revolutionaries took to create a sense of collective identity among the French people?

Ans- The steps taken by French revolutionaries were:

  • Promoting the Ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) for a unified community
  • A new French flag
  • The Estates-General was renamed by active citizens ‘ the National Assembly’
  • A central administrative system for the entire nation
  • Discouraging regional dialects to promote French as the national language.

Q2- What does the crown on allegory of ‘Germania’ signify?

Ans- The crown on allegory of ‘Germania’ signifies Heroism.

Q3- Who was the architect of Germany’s unification?

Ans- The architect of Germany was Otto Von Bismarck

Q4- Briefly explain the process of German unification

Ans- The process was:

  • The process of German unification was continued by Prussia after liberals and middle-class Germans were defeated by aristocrats and military.
  • Its chief minister Otto von Bismarck carried out the process and he got help from the Prussian army and bureaucracy.
  • Prussia fought three wars with Austria, Denmark, and France
  • These wars resulted in Prussian victory as well as German unification

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Board Exam 2020: Check Important Questions & Answers of Geography – All Chapters

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 2 (Nationalism in India)

Q1- Describe in detail the famous incidence of Jallianwala Bagh.

Ans- Check the major points below:

  • Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place on 13 April
  • On that particular day, a crowd of villagers who had come to Amritsar for attending a fair gathered in the enclosed ground of Jallianwalla Bagh
  • As they were outside the city, they were not aware of the martial law that had been imposed
  • General Dyer entered the area. He blocked the exit points, and openly fired on the crowd, killing hundreds.

Q2- What the idea of Satyagraha means?

Ans- The idea of satyagraha is a unique method that emphasizes the power of truth. It is about non-violent agitation.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Board Exam 2020: Check Important Questions & Answers of Civics (All Chapters)

Q3- Why did the political leaders differ over the question of separate electorates?

Ans- Political leaders held different opinions over the question of separate electorates because of the differences in their opinion. They all believed in the different outcomes of separate electorates. The leaders supporting the minorities and the Dalits believed that it was only political empowerment that would abolish social backwardness, while others like Gandhiji thought that separate electorates would slow down the process of integration.

Q4- What made Gandhiji withdrew the Non-Cooperation movement?

Ans- Including many incidents, it was mainly due to Chauri Chaura in 1922, which made Gandhiji withdrew Non- Cooperation movement.

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 3 -Livelihoods, Economies, and Societies (The Making of a Global World)

Q1- Why Europeans were fleeing to America in the nineteenth century? Explain.

Ans- The Europeans were fleeing to America because:

  • European cities were crowded and deadly diseases were spreading all over
  • Poverty and hunger were common in most of the countries in Europe
  • Religious dissenters were persecuted and religious conflicts were common

Q2- What is the meaning of the Bretton Woods Agreement?

Ans- The Bretton Woods Agreement established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank for preserving global economic stability and employment in the industrial world. The agreement was finalised in July 1944 at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA.

Q3- Mention two examples from history that show the impact of technology on food availability.

Ans- The two examples that showed the impact of technology on food availability are:

  • Lighter wagons, faster railways, and ships helped in the transportation of food more cheaply and quickly
  • Refrigerated ships helped in the transportation of perishable foods

Q4- What were the causes of the Great Depression.

Ans- Few causes of the Great Depression were:

  • Post world war, the global economy was weak
  • Most of the European countries took loans from the US. When the number of loans was decreased, the countries which were economically dependent on US loans faced an acute crisis
  • Agricultural over-production which was not compatible to demand in the market

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 4 (The Age of Industrialisation)

Q1- Why were merchants moving to the countryside in Europe during the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries? Explain.

Ans- The reasons were:

  • The world trade was expanding and the acquisition of 
  • It was getting difficult for new merchants to set up business in towns. So they were turning to the countryside.
  • Producers were regulating the prices, production, competition.

Note- Explain these points in detail.

Q2- Explain what is Proto- industrialisation.

Ans- Proto-industrialisation is the phase in which industrialisation was not based on the factory system. Before the factories, there was large-scale industrial production for International markets. This industrial history part is known as Proto- industrialisation.

Q3- Why industrial production in India increased during the First World War?

Ans- It increased because:

  • British mills were busy due to war needs
  • Due to high demand, the new factories had to be set up while old ones ran on multiple shifts
  • Industrial production was booming in India. The new workers were employed and there were long working hours

Q4- In what way did the East India Company procure regular supplies of cotton and silk textiles from Indian weavers?

Ans- The points are given below:

  • The East India Company established political power
  • Their actions were to eliminate the competition from other colonial powers. They controlled the costs and ensured regular supplies of cotton and silk goods for Britain
  • Appointment of gomasthas or paid servants for supervising weavers, collect supplies and to examine the textile quality
  • Company weavers were not allowed to deal with other buyers

Find more questions of Chapter 4 (The Age of Industrialisation) here

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 5 (Print Culture and the Modern World)

Q1- Explain the effects of the spread of print culture for poor people in nineteenth-century India?

Ans- The poor people were benefiting from the spread of print culture in India due to the availability of low-price books and public libraries which were spreading awareness and educating them.

Q2- Explain in brief how print culture assisted the growth of nationalism in India.

Ans- Print culture contributed to the growth of nationalism in India by providing access to nationalist ideals. It promoted the ideas of freedom and equality to the masses.  

Q3- Why people in eighteenth-century Europe thought that print culture would bring enlightenment and end despotism?

Ans- The easy and cheap availability of the print culture meant that literacy would no longer be restricted to the upper classes and can be accessed by anyone.

Q4- Why some of the people feared the effect of easily available printed books?

Ans- Some people were fearing that their power and authority would get eroded if ideas questioning their power gained mass popularity. The availability of the printed books made people more aware and made them question the authority.

  • Important Question & Answers of History Chapter 5 (Print Culture and the Modern World)

Q1- Why the effect of easily available printed books feared some people?

Ans- The availability of the printed books feared some of the people because they were worried about the consciousness and enlightenment that the print culture will bring among the people. The voice of reason will rise giving way to the social reforms.

Q2- Discuss the way in which the print culture assisted the growth of nationalism in India.

Ans- The growth of nationalism in India was assisted by the print culture as it gave easy access to nationalist ideas. The idea of freedom was communicated to the masses. Social reformers started putting their views through newspapers and encouraged the idea of public debates and struggle.

Q3- In what way the spreading of print culture of India in nineteenth-century affected women?

Ans- There were major educational reforms in India for women due to the print culture. Women were encouraged to be educated by their liberal husbands and fathers at home. Some even sent women to school. They also began to write in journals or newspapers.

Q4- Why Gandhiji said that the fight for Swaraj is a fight for the liberty of the press,liberty of speech and freedom of association?

Ans- Gandhi believed that the fight for Swaraj is a fight for the liberty of the press, liberty of speech and freedom of association because he considered them to be the powerful mode of expression. These forms of freedom were important for self-rule and independence.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Board Exam 2020: Check Important Questions & Answers of Civics (All Chapters)

Q5- Why Martin Luther was in favour of print and why he spoke out in praise of it.

Ans- Martin Luther spoke in favour of print and praised it because print media gave him a platform of spreading his ideas and popularizing it.

Q6- How the poor were impacted with the spread of print culture in the nineteenth century?

Ans- The poor were benefitted from the spread of print culture in India because it made the low priced books available, there were also libraries with the essays and books which talked about caste discrimination and social injustices.

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Previous Years’ Question Papers (2012-2019)

Q7- Why some people in eighteenth-century Europe thought that print culture would bring enlightenment and end despotism?

Ans- Some people in eighteenth-century thought that the print culture will bring enlightenment and end despotism because the easy availability of literacy will mean that it is not only limited to the upper class. They feared the awareness and questioning that will rise against the set ideologies.

Q8- Woodblock print only came to Europe after 1295.

Ans- Woodblock print was invented in China around the sixth century. In 1295, Woodblock print came to Europe with Marco Polo. He travelled to Italy after many years of exploration in China and brought the knowledge of woodblock print with him on his return. 

Q9- What was The Vernacular Press Act?

Ans- The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878. With this law, the government got the tyrannical rights to censor editorials in the vernacular press. In case a seditious report was published and the newspaper did not pay attention to an initial warning, then the press was seized. This law was an example of a violation of the freedom of expression.

Q10- Write a short note on The Gutenberg Press.

Ans- Johann Gutenberg established The Gutenberg Press. By 1448, Gutenberg had perfected the printing system with olive and wine presses while also using contemporary technological innovations. Bible was the first book that he printed and made 180 copies in 3 years. The Gutenberg Press was the first-ever known printing press in the 1430s.

Class 12 Maths Cbse exam : Students’Reactions ?| CBSE Exams 2020 | Class 12 Maths Experts Review

#Class12MathsExam #StudentsReactionsformathsexamClass12 #CbseExam2020 Class 12 Maths Cbse exam : Students’Reactions | CBSE Exams 2020 | Class 12 Maths Teacher Review CBSE Class 12 Maths 2020 Paper Analysis: Paper ‘Good’, Students ‘happy’ – complete question paper review CBSE Class 12 Maths 2020 Question Paper Review: Student Reactions The overall consensus over the CBSE Class 12 Maths paper is moderating between easy to difficult with a few 1-mark questions that seem to be the concern. Speaking to ATC , a student reported, “It was not an easy paper but it wasn’t tough either. I think the 1-mark questions were the toughest and it was the trend in all the subjects. Overall, it was an ok paper.” Another student found the choices very limited. “The choices were equally tough, which is a good thing maybe but we would have like more choices in 1-mark and 2-mark questions.

watch video about student reactions for class 12 maths examination :

Class 12 Maths Cbse exam : Students’Reactions ?

The long questions were easy…It was an okay paper,” shared Samarth. Teachers, on the other hand, have not had a chance to completely review the paper. Prima facie, they call the paper ‘balanced’. CBSE Class 12 Maths Exam 2020: First reactions and other updates CBSE Class 12 Maths Paper Review Update @1:35 pm: First reactions of studets on CBSE Class 12 Maths paper 2020 are out now. The examination ended at 1:30 pm and the students started to step out only at about 1:35 pm. First reactions of a few students is out now and they were ‘happy’ with the paper. Speaking over the masks, the students stated that the paper was ‘mostly easy’ but a few questions were tough. More details and review shortly. Keep refreshing the page for more updates. CBSE Class 12 Maths Paper Review Update @1:18 pm: In another 10 minutes the Class 12 maths paper would conclude. The CBSE Class 12 Maths paper is for 80 marks and contains a total of 36 questions.

never settle…

Students are required to attempt 36 question sin 3 hours. Compensatory 1 hour is also given to CWSN candidates. The question paper is further split into 20 1-mark questions, 6 questions each of 2 and 4 marks and 4 questions of 6 marks each. Review analysis and complete break-down on the paper would be provided here. Experts would also share question papers and complete solutions for the paper today after the exam is over. Central Board of Secondary Education, CBSE Class 12 Maths Exam 2020 is being conducted today. More than 4.5 lakh students are expected to appear for the examination today across the various CBSE exam centres in India and abroad. With the threat of Coronavirus extending to India, many steps have been taken by the Central and the state government. While the board examination has not been cancelled, CBSE has taken extra measures to ensure safety of the students and the evaluators from the virus. Most of the students were seen carrying hand sanitizers. Parents too have started to drop and pick the kids from the exam centres, minimizing the use of public transport. Related |

11Class में ऐसे होता है Physics Practical | File checking | Allotment of Practical | Physics Viva

CBSE Class 10, 12 Exams 2020: Board sends out new rules to exam centres in light of Coronavirus outbreak Overall, the atmosphere at examination centre was anxious. “I have not left the centre and have been sitting here since morning as this is more convenient. We are worried about the virus and then there are so many exams – these are trying times but we are trying to keep our kids in positive spirit,” shared Mr. Anurag Tyagi CBSE Board Exams 2020 would end on March 30 for most of the students.


CHAPTER 1 Resources and Development
Question 1. Examine the three major problems created as a result of indiscriminate utilization of natural resources.

The following are the three major problems created as a result of indiscriminate utilization of natural resources.
Depletion of resources at a faster rate.
Accumulation of resources in the hands of few creating a wide gap between the haves (rich) and have nots (poor).
Increase in global crises like ozone layer depletion, global warming, pollution and land degradation

Question 2. Mention any three features of arid soil.

The following are the three features of arid soils.
The colour of the arid soil ranges from red to brown.
Arid soils are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature.
The soils lack humus and moisture because of dry climate, high|emperature and fast evaporation.
The lower parts of the soils are occupied by kankar because of high calcium content. It restricts the infiltration of water in lower layers.(Any Three)

CBSE Class 10 Social Science Board Exam 2020: Check Important Questions & Answers of Geography – All Chapters

Question 3. How can you contribute to minimize the pollution? Explain. We can contribute to minimizing pollution by
creating awareness about not burning fallen leaves or garbage in the parks or on the roads.
requesting our parents and the people in the neighbourhood not to dump garbage in the ponds, rivers and other waterbodies, especially, while performing rituals.
not polluting the water storage tanks at home


Question 4. Explain the role of humans in resource development. The process of transformation of things into resource involves an inter-dependent relationship between nature, technology and institutions.

Human beings interact with nature through technology and create institutions to accelerate the pace of economic development. Human beings are essential components of resources as they transform materials in the environment into resources and use them

CHAPTER 2 Agriculture
Question. Describe the various technological and institutional reforms, which led to Green and White revolutions in India?

Answer : Green Revolution.

(i) Technical inputs resulted in the green revolution in sixties and seventies of the twentieth century.

(ii) High yielding and early maturing variety of seeds have been used.

(iii) Instead of bio-fertilizers, chemical fertilizers are used. (iv) Flooding of fields are replaced by drip irrigation and the use of sprinklers. White Revolution.

(i) The Dairy Development led to the white revolution or “Operation Flood”.

(ii) The dairy co-operation in the rural areas helped in rural development.

(iii) The National Milk Grid achieved Operation Flood.

(iv) Cross breed from foreign and native cattle have been developed.

Question . What steps should be done to improve the present state of agriculture in India?

Answer : (i) More and more use of high yielding and early maturing variety of seeds.

(ii) Large scale use of chemical fertilizers. (iii) Bio-fertilizers as a supplement.

(iv) Improved irrigation facilities.

(v) Use of radio and television by farmers to know new improved techniques of agriculture.

(vi) Cosolidation of holdings of land. (vii) Crop insurance. (viii) Availability of loans.

(ix) Government should ensure minimum price for the crop.

Question . What is implied by ‘Operation Flood’? How can it supplement the meager income of the small and marginal farmers?

Answer : Operation Flood is another name given to White Revolution. Due to Green Revolution, India has become the largest producer of milk in the world. The Dairy development has contributed to household nutritional security and increase in income. The progress in this field has resulted in the balanced development in the status of marginal farmers having livestock.
Question . Describe the rice cultivation in India? Answer : (i) Rice is grown on about 25% of the total cropped area and provide food to about 50% of the population of India.

(ii) Being a tropical crop, rice requires high temperature and maximum humidity.

(iii) The average temperature should be about 24º C and average rain fall of 100 cm. (iv) In Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh rice is grown with the help of irrigation.

(v) The major producer of rice are West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu.

Question .‘Despite the Green Revolution, the food production has started to show a declining trend;. How? Answer : (i) In past 50 years, production of the food grain has increased from 51 MT to 209 MT.

(ii) There is rapid increase in population in India, requires food grain, pulses, oil seeds and vegetable.

(iii) There is surplus food grains but 26% of population in India are below poverty line.

(iv) There are reduction of net sown area under foodgrains due to gradual shift from cultivation of food crops to fruit, cash crops and vegetables.

(v) With declining food production and increasing population may disrupt the future food security.

(vi) The food production in 2000-01 was 199 million tones (MT)

Question .What is the new technology in agriculture? Describe its significance in the development of Indian agriculture with three examples?

Answer : To achieve the goal of green revolution, there must be increase in production of food grains.This can be done by using high yielding variety of seeds, adopting modern methods of irrigation, large scale use of fertilizers, insecticides, pesticides, electrification and mechanization

. Question .Name the two main food crops of India. Mention three major producing areas of each crop? Answer : (i) Rice : – (a) West Bengal (b) Kerala (c) Punjab

(ii) Wheat : – (a) Punjab (b) Haryana (c) Uttar Pradesh
Minerals and resources
Question. State uses of limestone and largest producer state of lime stone?

Answer : About 75% of limestone is used in the cement industry, rest is used for smelting of iron and in chemical industries

. Leading producer of limestone is Madhya Pradesh.

Question .State any three successful applications of solar energy in our life?

Answer : Successful application of solar energy:-

(i) Cooking (ii) Heating water (iii) Lighting (iv) Cooling purposes.

Question .Write briefly two merits of water as a source of power?

Answer : (i) Pollution free

(ii) Renewable.

Question .Write briefly two merits of water power?

Answer : (i) Available in plenty (ii) Pollution free (iii) Cheap (iv) Less maintenance cost.

Question .Why do you think that solar energy has a bright future in India?

Answer : (i) India lies in the tropical zone and thus has enough scope for the production and utilization of solar energy.

(ii) The non-conventional sources are plenty, renewable, eco-friendly and pollution free.

(iii) Becoming popular in every parts of the country and can be used for cooking, lighting, pumping, heating water and cooling.
Question. Describe the distribution of iron ore in India?

Answer : (i) Magnetite and haematite are found in Jharkhand, Chhatisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, Goa, Orissa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Maharastra and Rajasthan.

(ii) Most of them comes from Jharkhand, Chhatisgarh, Orissa, Goa and Karnataka.

(iii) Some major mines are:-

(a) Singhbhum in Jharkhand

(b) Durg and Dantewara in Chhatisgarh

(c) Koenjhar and Mayurbhanj in Orissa

(d) Nort Goa in Goa (e) Bellary in Karnataka.

Question .. Describe the distribution of coal in India?

Answer : (i) Anthracite is found in Jammu and Kashmir

(ii) Bituminus is found in Jharkhand, Orissa, West Bengal, Chhatisgarh and Madhya Pradesh

(iii) Lignite is found in Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan.

Question .. How will you use and conserve energy efficiently?

Answer : To conserve energy we should:-

(i) use public transport system as far as possible.

(ii) Switch off electricity if not required.

(iii) use power saving devices.

(iv) regularly check our power equipments.

(v) emphasise on greater use of conventional sources of energy.

Question .. Describe any two facts regarding the importance of manganese in our daily life. Also name the four states which are known for its production?

Answer : Use of manganese:-

(i) for making iron and steel

(ii) for preparing alloys

(iii) to manufacture bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Producing states of manganese:-

(i) Karnataka (ii) Orissa (iii) Madhya Pradesh

(iv) Maharastra.
Manufacturing Industries
Question . Give an account of the sugar industry in India? Answer : This industry is based on sugarcane which is heavy, weight losing and perishable. Hence the mills are located very close to the sugarcane producing areas. 50% of sugar mills are in Uttar Pradesh and Maharastra.

Question . Most of the cotton textile mills located in Maharastra and Gujarat. Why?

Answer : (i) Availability of raw material i.e. cotton.(ii) Labour is available in plenty.(iii) Power plants are available in plenty.(iv) Market is also available.

Question .Account for the synthetic fibres under the headings?

(i) Raw material(ii) Advantage(iii) Distribution.

Answer : (i) Raw materials : – wood pulp, coal and petroleum.(ii) Advantage : – finishing is better, durable, strength. (iii) Distribution : – West Bengal, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Gujarat.

Question . State the importance and distribution of the Aluminium industries?

Answer: In India Aluminium smelting is the second largest industry. It is flexible, good conductor of heat and electricity and hence is universally accepted metal for a large number of industries. It is widely used as a substitute of copper, zinc, lead and steel.

Distribution : – Eight (8) industrial plants are located in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Maharastra, Orissa, Chhatisgarh, West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.

Question .Why is iron & steel industry called a heavy and basic industry? Give two reasons for each?

Answer :Heavy Industry : – The raw materials iron ore, limestone etc are heavy. The finished product are also heavy.

Basic Industry : – All industries depend on it for machines.

Question .Why have most of the iron and steel plants been set up in the Public Sector? Explain four reasons?

Answer :Iron and steel plants requires huge capital investments and the yield or profit take a long time. No large number of labours are required.
Lifelines of nation
Question. Explain why the means of transport and communication are called lifelines of our national economy?

Ans: Efficient means of transport and communication has converted the world into a large village.

a. Through transport and communication we are well-linked with the rest of the world

b. India is united despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality.

c. Railways, airways, water ways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet, etc. have been contributing to India’s socio-economic progress in many ways.

d. The trades from local to international levels have added to the strength of our economy.

e. It has enriched our life and added amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.

Explain why a dense and efficient network of transport and communication is a pre-requisite for local, national and global trade of today.

a. They help in increasing cooperation and assistance between countries by easy movement of goods and material between countries.

b. They help in trade and commerce within country. c. They have reduced distances thus bringing the world closer. d. They help in both production and distribution of goods and movement of large number of people and over long distance.

e. They provide important links between producers and consumers of goods.
Question Why the importance of road transport vis-à-vis rail transport is growing in India?

Ans: In India, roadways have preceded railways. The growing importance of road transport is due to the following reasons –

i. Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines,

ii. Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography, R

iii. Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas, iv. Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances,

v. It also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower,

vi. Road transport is also used as a feeder to other modes of transport such as they provide a link between railway stations, air and sea ports.
Question. State any four problems of Road transport in the country. Ans. Major Problems are:

i. Road transportation in India is inadequate keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers.

ii. About half of the roads are un-metal and this limits their usage during the rainy season.

iii. The National Highways are inadequate too.

iv. Moreover, the roadways are highly congested in cities

v. Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow. Question. Describe the importance of Railways in India. Ans. Indian Railways has been

i. The principal mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.

ii. Suitable for long distance travel. iii. Conduct of multiple activities like business, sightseeing, and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods.

iv. Plays an important role of national integration. v. Bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

CBSE 10th Social Science Board Exam 2020: Check Important Questions & Answers of Civics (All Chapters)


CBSE 10th Social Science Board Exam 2020: Check Important Questions & Answers of Civics (All Chapters)

CBSE 10th Civics exam is on 18th March 2020. The mentioned questions and answers are from all the chapters of Civics and are taken from the NCERT textbook and the latest CBSE sample paper. These questions are also expected in CBSE 10 Board Exam 2020.

CBSE Class 10 Civics

CBSE Class 10 Civics

The important questions of CBSE 10th Civics are given here. These questions are from NCERT & the latest sample paper-based and can be expected in the CBSE class 10 board exam 2020. The article provides chapter- wise important short and long questions that will help the students in scoring well. 

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 1 (Power-Sharing)

Q1- Explain along with examples the accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony.

  • Many Powers of the central government were given to state government
  • Both Dutch and French-speaking ministers got equal in the central govt.
  • Many Powers of the central government have been given to state government

(Explain the points further)

Q2- Mention different forms of power-sharing in modern democracies? Give an example of each of these.

Ans- Thedifferent forms of power-sharing in modern democracies are:

  • Vertical Division of Power
  • Horizontal Division of Power
  • Division of Power among Social Groups
  • Division of Power between pressure groups, political parties, and movements

Q3- Mention one prudential reason and one moral reason for power sharing with an example from the Indian context.

Ans- A prudential reason for power-sharing can be mainly that it leads to an avoidance of conflict between social groups.

While a moral reason for power sharing is that it upholds the spirit of democracy.

Q4- Correct the following statement and rewrite:

In Srilanka, an Act was passed in 1956 in order to recognize Tamil as the only official language, disregarding Sinhala.

Ans- In Srilanka, in 1956 an act was passed to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, disregarding Tamil.

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 2 (Federalism)

Q1- Who presides the meeting of the Municipal Corporation?

Ans- The Alderman/ Mayor/Municipal Commissioner presides over the meeting of the Municipal Corporation.

Q2- Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India?

Ans- The Union Government has the power to legislate on Residuary subjects in India.

Q3- Explain in detail any three features of Indian Federalism.

Ans- The three features of Indian Federalism are:

  • Indian federalism is a threefold distribution based on three lists. Union List, State List, and Concurrent List
  • High Courts and the Supreme Court solves the dispute between center and state.
  • Centre has the legislative power on ‘residuary’ subjects

Q4- Mention the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary one? Explain with an example.

Ans- In a federal government, the central government shares its powers with the various constituent units of the country while in the Unitary government, all the power is exercised by only one government. 

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 3 (Democracy and Diversity)

This chapter is assessed in Periodic Tests only and it will not be evaluated in the CBSE Board Exam.

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 4 (Gender, Religion, and Caste)

Q1- Give a reason why the representation of women in Indian Parliament is still low as compared to European countries because

Ans- The reason is the lack of legally imposed quotas or reservation policy at the central level / Any other relevant point.

Q2- What is the reason that The Constitution of India provides to all individuals and communities freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion.

Ans- The reason is that India is a secular country.

Q3- What are the different aspects of life in which women are discriminated against or disadvantaged in India.

Ans- The different aspects are:

  • Women are not provided with equal and adequate education
  • Female Foeticide is still practiced
  • Women labor is still unpaid

Q4- Mention two reasons to say that caste alone cannot determine election results in India.

Ans- The two reasons are:

  • No parliamentary constituency gets a clear majority of one single caste.
  • No party gets all the votes of a particular caste.

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 5 (Popular Struggles and Movements)

This chapter is assessed in Periodic Tests only and it will not be evaluated in the CBSE Board Exam.

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 6 (Political Parties)

Q1- What is the role of Political Parties in India

Ans- The role of political parties in India is:

  • Parties form the govt run them
  • Parties are responsible for contesting the election
  • Parties who lose in the election play the role of opposition

Q2- Mention the various challenges faced by Political parties.

Ans- The various challenges faced by Political parties are:

  • Increased dependence on money and muscle power
  • Lack of Internal Democracy
  • Failure to provide voters with meaningful choices

Q3- Describe what is Political Party?

Ans- A political party is basically a group of people who follow a particular ideology. They come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.

Q4- What are the main characteristics of a political party?

Ans- The main characteristics of a political party are:

  • The party consist of leaders, supporters, and party workers
  • The presence of a central ideology in the party
  • The party promises to implement these policies arising from this ideology

Important Questions and Answers of Chapter 7 (Outcomes of Democracy)

Q1- Mention any one example of Social Democracy.

Ans- The example of Social Democracy is the Dignity of the individual (gender, caste, religion).

Q2- Examine the statement‘Democracy is based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation

Ans- Explained in points below:

  • Democracy makes sure that decision making will be based on norms and procedures.
  • Democracy follows procedures and is accountable to the people.
  • Democracy givesmore importance to deliberation and public opinion.

Q3- Examine the statement,‘Respect and equal treatment of women are necessary ingredients of a democratic society’.

Ans- Explained in the points below:

  • Distributive justice is important to reduce inequalities in resources and power
  • Gives equal political and civil rights as men
  • Removessocial evils such as violence, torture, humiliation, etc.

Q4- Mention the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities?

Ans- Social diversities are accommodated when it is understood that democracy is not just for the rule of majority or any other single religious or social community.

Important Questions & Answers of Chapter 8 (Challenges to Democracy)

This chapter is assessed in Periodic Tests only and it will not be evaluated in the CBSE Board Exam.